Higher Human Biology Revision UNIT 1 Question 1

Higher Human Biology Revision UNIT 1

Question 1 • Two classes of proteins are fibrous protein and conjugated protein. What is the third class? • A. Globulating Protein • B. Transferrin Protein • C. Globular Protein

Question 2 • Keratin, collagen, actin and myosin all belong to which class of protein? • A. Fibrous Protein • B. Congugated Protein • C. Globular Protein

Question 3 • An example of a conjugated protein would be • A. Insulin • B. Antibodies • C. Mucus

Question 4 • What part of an enzyme is destroyed at high temperature • A. the active site • B. the optimum site • C. the specific site

Question 5 • The name of the enzyme that is involved in the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide is • A. Manganese oxide • B. Catalase • C. Amylase

Question 6 • A competitive inhibitor is one which • A. attaches itself to the active site of an enzyme and blocks it • B. attaches itself to another part of the enzyme away from the active site • C. attaches itself to the substrate and prevents it joining with the enzyme

Question 7 • An example of a non-competitive inhibitor would be • A. Sugar • B. Cyanide • C. Nitrogen

Question 8 • Many co-enzymes contain which substance as the main part of their molecular structure? • A. Fat • B. Water • C. Vitamins

Question 9 • Trypsin and enteropeptidase are examples of • A. co- factors • B. co- enzymes • C. enzyme activators

Question 10 • The three parts that make up a DNA nucleotide are • A. Base, deoxyribose sugar, guanine • B. Phosphate, ribose sugar, base • C. Deoxyribose sugar, base, phosphate

Question 11 • The types of bonds that are present in DNA are • A. Hydrogen and peptide bonds • B. Hydrogen and chemical bonds • C. Chemical and peptide bonds

Question 12 • RNA is different from DNA in that it • A. contains ribose, thymine and is single stranded • B. contains ribose, is single stranded and contains uracil • C. contains ribose, uracil and is double stranded

Question 13 • • The process of transcription involves A. the synthesis of a m-RNA from a t-RNA B. the synthesis of a t-RNA from a m-RNA C. the synthesis of a m-RNA from a DNA

Question 14 • • The process of translation takes place at A. a ribosome B. a golgi body C. a nucleus

Question 15 • The three bases that are found in a t-RNA strand are • A. Codons • B. Anti-codons • C. Antibodies

Question 16 • The molecule attached to an anticodon is an • A. ribosome • B. polypeptide • C. amino acid

Question 17 • The cell structure that is responsible for packaging and processing a protein ready for secretion is • A. Endoplasmic reticulum • B. Golgi apparatus • C. Vesicles

Question 18 • Adenosine joined to 3 inorganic phosphates is the make up of • A. ATP • B. ADP • C. ADH

Question 19 • The first stage of respiration is • A. Krebs Cycle and occurs in the matrix of the mitochondria • B. Glycolysis and occurs in the matrix of the mitochondria • C. Glycolysis and occurs in the cytoplasm

Question 20 • The number of ATP molecules needed to start the process of glycolysis off is • A. 4 ATPs • B. 2 ATPs • C. 36 ATPs

Question 21 • The Krebs Cycle occurs • A. in the matrix of the mitochondria and breaks down citric acid in a series of enzyme-controlled reactions. • B. in the cristae of the mitochondria and builds up citric acid. • C. in the cytoplasm and breaks down citric acid in a series of enzyme-controlled reactions.

Question 22 • The total number of ATPs made from the complete breakdown of glucose during aerobic respiration is • A. 36 ATPs • B. 38 ATPs • C. 2 ATPs

Question 23 • The final product/s of anaerobic respiration in animal cells is/are • A. Lactic Acid • B. Lactic Acid and Ethanol • C. Lactic Acid and Carbon Dioxide

Question 24 • Maltose and Glucose sugar can be described respectively as a • A. Monosaccharide and disaccharide • B. Polysaccharide and disaccharide • C. Disaccharide and Monosaccharide

Question 25 • The colour that iodine turns in the presence of glycogen is • A. Blue-black • B. Brick red • C. Purple-red

Question 26 • A phospholipid is made up of • A. three fatty acids and a glycerol • B. two fatty acids, a glycerol and a phosphate • C. three fatty acids, a glycerol and a phosphate

Question 27 • Cholesterol, bile and sex hormones are all examples of • A. Phospholipids • B. Triglycerides • C. Steroids

Question 28 • The stores of fat around the kidneys and on the palms of the hands are known as • A. Fat pads • B. Fat deposits • C. Fat bits

Question 29 • The process of breakdown of excess amino acids • A. Occurs in the kidneys and is known as deamination • B. Occurs in the liver and is known as acid hydrolysis • C. Occurs in the liver and is known as deamination

Question 30 • During the first few minutes of marathon running an athlete will • A. Use glucose then glycogen and fatty acids over the next half hour • B. Use glycogen then glucose and fatty acids over the next half hour • C. Use fatty acids then glucose and fatty acids over the next half hour

Question 31 • The two molecules that make up the cell membrane and can be represented by the fluid mosaic model are • A. Protein and phospholipid • B. Protein and steroid • C. Protein and triglyceride

Question 32 • Diffusion and osmosis are described as • A. Passive processes • B. Active processes • C. Inactive processes

Question 33 • Active transport requires energy to pass materials from • A. A low to high concentration, against a concentration gradient • B. A high to low concentration, against a concentration gradient • C. A low to high concentration, down a concentration gradient

Question 34 • The process of phagocytosis can be described as • A. Exocytosis • B. Ectocytosis • C. Endocytosis

Question 35 • The type of immunity that is described as inborn and unchanging is • A. Acquired Immunity • B. Passive Immunity • C. Innate Immunity

Question 36 • The production of antibodies by the Blymphocytes is described as • A. a humoral response • B. a cell-mediated response • C. a quick response

Question 37 • Lymphocytes known as T-lymphocytes are produced in • A. the bone marrow • B. the liver • C. the thymus

Question 38 • A mother passing antibodies to a baby through breast milk is an example of • A. Active natural immunity • B. Active acquired immunity • C. Passive natural immunity

Question 39 • During an allergic reaction, the name of the substance produced by the body which results in nasal congestion, runny nose and blocked airways is • A. Anti-histamine • B. Histamine • C. Dopamine

Question 40 • People with blood group AB have • A. anti A and anti B antibodies • B. neither anti A nor anti B antibodies • C. Anti A antibodies

Question 41 • People with the blood group A can receive blood from groups • A. B and O • B. A, B, AB • C. A and O

Question 42 • The order in which virus replication occurs is • A. Attachment, DNA replication, protein synthesis, assembly of the protein coat, lysis of the host cell • B. DNA replication, assembly of the protein coat, protein synthesis, attachment, lysis of the host cell • C. DNA replication. protein synthesis, attachment, assembly of the protein coat, lysis of the host cell

Question 43 • A virus that has been rendered harmless by chemical or heat treatment is described as • A. Weakened • B. Retrovirus • C. Attenuated

Question 44 • Each species has a unique number of chromosomes present in the nucleus of each of its cells. This is known as • A. Homologous pairs • B. Chromosome compliment • C. Autosomal number

Question 45 • Following Meiosis • A. 2 diploid gametes are produced • B. 4 diploid gametes are produced • C. 4 haploid gametes are produced

Question 46 • For DNA replication to occur • A. enzymes, ATP, nucleotides and an RNA strand is needed • B. enzymes, ATP, nucleotides and a DNA strand is needed • C. RNA nucleotides, DNA polymerase, ATP and a DNA strand is needed

Question 47 • The points where crossing over occurs during meiosis are called • A. Chiasma • B. Crossover points • C. Equators

Question 48 • During meiosis new combinations of alleles arise by • A. Crossing over • B. Independent Assortment • C. Crossing over and Independent Assortment

Question 49 • In a monohybrid cross, the F 2 ratio is usually • A. 9: 1 • B. 2: 1 • C. 3: 1

Question 50 • The way an organism looks based on the genes it possesses is called • A. Phenotype • B. Genotype • C. Karlotype

Question 51 • Lack of understanding that the probability of a particular outcome is always the same regardless of the result that came before it is called • A. Principle of Segregation • B. Stupidity • C. Gambler’s Fallacy

Question 52 • People who possess the antigen D on the surface of their red blood cells are said to be • A. Rhesus positive • B. Rhesus negative • C. Sensitised

Question 53 • A condition that is a disorder of the mucussecreting glands and causes sufferers to die at an early age is • A. Huntington’s Chorea • B. Cystic Fibrosis • C. Phenylketonuria

Question 54 • The condition that causes degeneration of the nervous system, can only be diagnosed in the sufferer’s late 30’s and is caused by a dominant allele is • A. Phenylketonuria • B. Huntington’s Chorea • C. Sickle Cell trait

Question 55 • Red-green colourblindness, Duchenne muscular dystrophy and haemophilia are examples of • A. Autosomal dominant conditions • B. Autosomal recessive conditions • C. Sex- linked conditions caused by a recessive allele

Question 56 • When a characteristic is controlled by several genes this is an example of • A. Polygenic inheritance • B. Additive inheritance • C. Multigenic inheritance

Question 57 • The gene mutations substitution and inversion are described as • A. Frameshift Mutations • B. Point Mutations • C. Minor Mutations

Question 58 • The condition where a person has suffered an inborn error of metabolism and is unable to convert phenylalanine into tyrosine is • A. Cystic fibrosis • B. Albinism • C. Phenylketonuria

Question 59 • The condition where a person is unable to make melanin and is sensitive to UV light is called • A. Phenylketonuria • B. Albinism • C. Cystic Fibrosis

Question 60 • An example of a mutagenic agent is • A. X-rays • B. Mustard • C. Tea

Question 61 • The failure of spindle fibres to separate during meiosis is called • A. Non- separation • B. Non-disjunction • C. Homologous chromosomes

Question 62 • The condition caused by spindle fibres failing to separate at chromosome 21 is • A. Turner’s syndrome • B. Down’s syndrome • C. Klinefelter’s syndrome

Question 63 • A person with the chromosome compliment 44 + XO (where O denotes a missing sex chromosome) has the condition known as • A. Turner’s Syndrome • B. Down’s Syndrome • C. Kleinfelter’s Syndrome

Question 64 • A person with the condition Kleinfelter’s Syndrome will have the chromosome compliment • A. 44 + XXY • B. 44 + XYY • C. 45 + XXY

Question 65 • An example of an autosomal recessive disorder would be • A. Albinism • B. Cystic Fibrosis • C. Phenylketonuria

Question 66 • A condition that shows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance is • A. Cystic Fibrosis • B. Haemophilia • C. Huntington’s Chorea

Question 67 • An example of a sex-linked condition caused by a recessive allele would be • A. Cystic Fibrosis • B. Haemophilia • C. Huntington’s Chorea

Question 68 • The main aim of genetic counselling is to • A. Advise couples on how many children to have • B. Assess the risk of a faulty allele being passed in a family and help people to make informed decisions • C. Advise people to have amniocentesis

Question 69 • A procedure that can be carried out around the 18 th week of pregnancy is • A. Chorionic Villus Sampling • B. Post-Natal Screening • C. Amniocentesis

Question 70 • A disorder that can be diagnosed through post-natal screening using the Guthrie Test is • A. Phenylketonuria • B. Huntington’s Chorea • C. Albinism