Exam Tomorrow essay multiple choice questions Covers chapters

Exam Tomorrow essay & multiple choice questions Covers chapters 1 -8, S 1 & 14 Allowed one standard sheet of notes with writing on one side only

Which of the following best describes the modern definition of a constellation? A) a region of the celestial sphere B) a pattern of bright stars in the sky C) a Greek mythological figure D) a collection of stars that are near one another in space E) a group of stars that all lie at about the same distance from Earth

Which of the following statements about the celestial equator is true at all latitudes? A) It lies along the band of light we call the Milky Way. B) It represents an extension of Earth's equator onto the celestial sphere. C) It cuts the dome of your sky exactly in half. D) It extends from your horizon due east, through your zenith, to your horizon due west. E) It extends from your horizon due north, through your zenith, to your horizon due south.

What is the ecliptic? A) when the Moon passes in front of the Sun B) the Moon's apparent path along the celestial sphere C) the constellations commonly used in astrology to predict the future D) the Sun's daily path across the sky E) the Sun's apparent path along the celestial sphere

You are standing on Earth's equator. Which way is Polaris, the North star? A) 30 degrees up, due West B) on the northern horizon C) directly overhead D) The answer depends on whether it's winter or summer. E) The answer depends on what time of day (or night) it is.

Which of the following statements about circumpolar stars is true at all latitudes? A) They are the stars close to the north celestial pole. B) They always remain above your horizon. C) They make relatively small circles, traveling clockwise around the north celestial pole. D) Like all other stars, they rise in the east and set in the west. E) You cannot see them from the Southern Hemisphere.

Why is it summer in the Northern Hemisphere when it is winter in the Southern Hemisphere? A) The Northern Hemisphere is closer to the Sun than the Southern Hemisphere. B) The Northern Hemisphere is "on top" of Earth and therefore receives more sunlight. C) The Northern Hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun and receives more direct sunlight. D) The Northern Hemisphere is tilted away from the Sun and receives more indirect sunlight. E) It isn't: both hemispheres have the same seasons at the same time.

Which of the following is not a phase of the Moon? A) first-quarter Moon B) third-quarter Moon C) half Moon D) new Moon E) full Moon

If the Moon is setting at 6 A. M. , the phase of the Moon must be A) first quarter. B) third quarter. C) full. D) new. E) waning crescent.

If the Moon is setting at noon, the phase of the Moon must be A) full. B) first quarter. C) third quarter. D) waning crescent. E) waxing crescent.

If the Moon rises around 3 A. M. , its phase must be A) full. B) first quarter. C) third quarter. D) waning crescent. E) waxing crescent.

Suppose you live on the Moon. How long is a solar day (i. e. , from sunrise to sunrise)? A) 23 hours 56 minutes B) 24 hours C) a lunar month D) a year E) about 18 years

What effect or effects would be most significant if the Moon's orbital plane were exactly the same as the ecliptic plane? A) Solar eclipses would be much rarer. B) Solar eclipses would be much more frequent. C) Solar eclipses would last much longer. D) both A and C E) both B and C

If the Moon is relatively far from Earth, so that the umbra does not reach Earth, someone directly behind the umbra will see A) a penumbral lunar eclipse. B) a partial lunar eclipse. C) a partial solar eclipse. D) an annular eclipse. E) no eclipse.

What happens during the apparent retrograde motion of a planet? A) The planet rises in the west and sets in the east. B) The planet appears to move westward with respect to the stars over a period of many nights. C) The planet moves backward through the sky over the course of a night. D) The planet moves backward in its orbit around the Sun. E) The planet moves through constellations that are not part of the zodiac.

Which of the following statements about stellar parallax is true? A) We observe all stars to exhibit at least a slight amount of parallax. B) Stellar parallax was first observed by ancient Greek astronomers. C) The amount of parallax we see depends on how fast a star is moving relative to us. D) It takes at least 10 years of observation to measure a star's parallax. E) The closer a star is to us, the more parallax it exhibits.

When we see Venus in its full phase, what phase would Earth be in as seen by a hypothetical Venetian? A) full B) new C) first quarter D) third quarter E) waning crescent

From Kepler's third law, a hypothetical planet that is twice as far from the Sun as Earth should have a period of A) 1/2 Earth year. B) 1 Earth year. C) 2 Earth years. D) more than 2 Earth years. E) It depends on the planet's mass.

What is meant by Occam's Razor? A) a well-designed experiment that clearly shows the differences between two competing theories B) a poorly designed experiment that fails to show the difference between two competing theories C) the idea that scientists should prefer the simpler of two models that agree equally well with observations D) the fine line between science and pseudoscience E) the shaving implement of a medieval scholar

Which of the following is the reason for the solar day being longer than a sidereal day? A) precession of Earth's axis B) the tilt of Earth's axis C) the combined effect of the rotation of Earth and its orbit about the Sun D) Earth year being a non-integer number of Earth days E) the non-circular orbit of Earth around the Sun

The lunar month is longer than the sidereal month because A) the Moon completes the cycle of lunar phases before it completes a full orbit around Earth. B) the Moon has to complete more than one full orbit around Earth to complete the cycle of lunar phases. C) the Moon orbits Earth faster than Earth orbits the Sun. D) the Moon orbits Earth faster than Earth rotates. E) the lunar month is based on the Moon's orbit, while the sidereal month is based on Earth's orbit.

Which of the following is the reason for the leap years? A) precession of Earth's axis B) the tilt of Earth's axis C) the combined effect of the rotation of Earth and its orbit about the Sun D) Earth year being a non-integer number of Earth days E) the non-circular orbit of Earth around the Sun

The Sun is rising in the east and will be on your meridian in 2 hours. What time is it? A) 2 A. M. B) 2 P. M. C) 10 A. M. D) 10 P. M. E) noon

Suppose you lived at Earth's equator. Which of the following statements would not be true? A) The north celestial pole is directly on your horizon, due north (with Polaris quite nearby). B) The south celestial pole is directly on your horizon, due south. C) Every day of the year, the Sun is above your horizon for 12 hours and below it for 12 hours. D) The celestial equator goes through your sky from due east on your horizon, through 50° altitude in the south, to due west on the horizon. E) No stars are circumpolar.

The south celestial pole appears on your meridian at an altitude of 30° in the south. Where are you? A) latitude = 30°S B) latitude = 60°S C) latitude = 30°N D) latitude = 60°N E) the South Pole

Suppose you live at latitude 40°N. Which of the following describes the path of the celestial equator through your sky? A) It goes from due south on your horizon, to your zenith, to due north on your horizon. B) It goes from due east on your horizon, to your zenith, to due west on your horizon. C) It goes from due east on your horizon, to an altitude of 50° in the south, to due west on your horizon. D) It goes from due east on your horizon, to an altitude of 40° in the south, to due west on your horizon. E) It goes from due east on your horizon, to an altitude of 40° in the north, to due west on your horizon.

The time between rising and setting of a star A) is always 12 hours. B) depends on the star's declination. C) depends on the star's right ascension. D) depends on the observer's latitude. E) depends on the observer's longitude.

Which of the following best describes the Tropic of Cancer? A) It is any place where it is always very warm. B) It is another name for the equator. C) It is a place where the Sun appears to remain stationary in the sky. D) It is a place where the Sun is directly overhead at noon on the summer solstice. E) It is a place where the Sun is directly overhead at noon on the spring equinox.

Suppose the date is March 21 and the Sun crosses your meridian at an altitude of 23. 5° in the north. Where are you? A) the equator B) the Tropic of Cancer C) the Tropic of Capricorn D) the Arctic Circle E) the Antarctic Circle

Which of the following is an example in which you are traveling at constant speed but not at constant velocity? A) rolling freely down a hill in a cart, traveling in a straight line B) driving backward at exactly 50 km/hr C) driving around in a circle at exactly 100 km/hr D) jumping up and down, with a period of exactly 60 hops per minute E) none of the above

As long as an object is not gaining or losing mass, a net force on the object will cause a change in A) acceleration. B) direction. C) weight. D) speed. E) velocity.

Suppose an object is moving in a straight line at 50 mi/hr. According to Newton's first law of motion, the object will A) continue to move in the same way forever, no matter what happens. B) continue to move in the same way until it is acted upon by a force. C) eventually slow down and come to a stop. D) continue to move in a straight line forever if it is in space, but slow and stop otherwise.

The fact that the Voyager spacecraft continue to speed out of the solar system, even though its rockets have no fuel, is an example of A) Newton's first law of motion. B) Newton's second law of motion. C) Newton's third law of motion. D) the universal law of gravitation. E) none of the above.

A skater can spin faster by pulling her arms closer to her body or spin slower by spreading her arms out from her body. This is due to A) the law of gravity. B) Newton's third law. C) conservation of momentum. D) conservation of angular momentum. E) conservation of energy.

What does temperature measure? A) the average mass of particles in a substance B) the average size of particles in a substance C) the average kinetic energy of particles in a substance D) the total number of particles in a substance E) the total potential energy of particles in a substance

Considering Einstein's famous equation, E = mc 2, which of the following statements is true? A) Mass can be turned into energy, but energy cannot be turned back into mass. B) It takes a large amount of mass to produce a small amount of energy. C) A small amount of mass can be turned into a large amount of energy. D) You can make mass into energy if you can accelerate the mass to the speed of light.

When a rock is held above the ground, we say it has some potential energy. When we let it go, it falls and we say the potential energy is converted to kinetic energy. Finally, the rock hits the ground. What has happened to the energy? A) The energy goes into the ground and, as a result, the orbit of the earth about the Sun is slightly changed. B) The energy goes to producing sound and to heating the ground, rock, and surrounding air. C) The rock keeps the energy inside it (saving it for later use). D) It is lost forever. Energy does not have to be conserved. E) It is transformed back into gravitational potential energy.

According to the universal law of gravitation, the force due to gravity is A) directly proportional to the square of the distance between objects. B) inversely proportional to the square of the distance between objects. C) directly proportional to the distance between objects. D) inversely proportional to the distance between objects. E) not dependent on the distance between objects.

The force of gravity is an inverse square law. This means that, if you double the distance between two large masses, the gravitational force between them A) also doubles. B) strengthens by a factor of 4. C) weakens by a factor of 4. D) weakens by a factor of 2. E) is unaffected.

The orbital period of a geosynchronous satellite is A) 23 hours 56 minutes. B) 24 hours. C) 365. 25 days. D) 12 years. E) 26, 000 years.

The mass of Jupiter can be calculated by A) measuring the orbital period and distance of Jupiter's orbit around the Sun. B) measuring the orbital period and distance of one of Jupiter's moons. C) measuring the orbital speed of one of Jupiter's moons. D) knowing the Sun's mass and measuring how Jupiter's speed changes during its elliptical orbit around the Sun. E) knowing the Sun's mass and measuring the average distance of Jupiter from the Sun.

Which of the following best describes the origin of ocean tides on Earth? A) Tides are caused by the difference in the force of gravity exerted by the Moon across the sphere of the earth. B) The Moon's gravity pulls harder on water than on land, because water is less dense than rock. C) Tides are caused by the 23 1/2° tilt of the earth's rotational axis to the ecliptic plane. D) Tides are caused primarily by the gravitational force of the Sun. E) Tides are caused on the side of Earth nearest the Moon because the Moon's gravity attracts the water.

At which lunar phase(s) are tides most pronounced (e. g. , the highest high tides)? A) first quarter B) new Moon C) full Moon D) both new and full Moons E) both first and third quarters

Imagine we’ve discovered a planet orbiting another star at 1 AU every 6 months. The planet has a moon that orbits the planet at the same distance as our Moon, but it takes 2 months. What can we infer about this planet? A) It is more massive than Earth. B) It is less massive than Earth. C) It has the same mass as Earth. D) We cannot answer the question without knowing the mass of the star. E) We cannot answer the question without knowing the mass of the moon.

If a material is transparent, then it A) reflects light well. B) absorbs light well. C) transmits light well. D) scatters light well. E) emits light well.

Grass (that is healthy) looks green because A) it emits green light and absorbs other colors. B) it absorbs green light and emits other colors. C) it transmits green light and emits other colors. D) it reflects green light and absorbs other colors.

Everything looks red through a red filter because A) the filter emits red light and absorbs other colors. B) the filter absorbs red light and emits other colors. C) the filter transmits red light and absorbs other colors. D) the filter reflects red light and transmits other colors.

How are wavelength, frequency, and energy related for photons of light? A) Longer wavelength means lower frequency and lower energy. B) Longer wavelength means higher frequency and lower energy. C) Longer wavelength means higher frequency and higher energy. D) Longer wavelength means lower frequency and higher energy. E) There is no simple relationship because different photons travel at different speeds.

Without telescopes or other aid, we can look up and see the Moon in the night sky because it A) emits visible light. B) emits thermal radiation. C) reflects infrared light. D) reflects visible light. E) glows through radioactive decay.

At extremely high temperatures (e. g. , millions of degrees), which of the following best describes the phase of matter? A) a gas of rapidly moving molecules B) a plasma consisting of positively charged ions and free electrons C) a gas consisting of individual, neutral atoms, but no molecules D) a plasma consisting of rapidly moving, neutral atoms E) none of the above (At these extremely high temperatures, matter cannot exist. )

If you heat a gas so that collisions are continually bumping electrons to higher energy levels, when the electrons fall back to lower energy levels the gas produces A) thermal radiation. B) an absorption line spectrum. C) an emission line spectrum. D) X rays. E) radio waves.

When an electron in an atom goes from a higher energy state to a lower energy state, the atom A) emits a photon of a specific frequency. B) absorbs a photon of a specific frequency. C) absorbs several photons of a specific frequency. D) can emit a photon of any frequency. E) can absorb a photon of any frequency.

When white light passes through a cool cloud of gas, we see A) visible light. B) infrared light. C) thermal radiation. D) an absorption line spectrum. E) an emission line spectrum

Which of the following objects is not a close approximation of a thermal or blackbody emitter? A) hot, thin gas B) a star C) a filament in a light bulb D) you E) a planet

Which of the following statements about thermal radiation is always true? A) A hot object emits photons with a longer wavelength than a cool object. B) A hot object emits photons with a higher average energy than a cool object. C) A hot object emits more radio waves than a cool object. D) A hot object emits more X rays than a cool object.

Suppose you see two stars: a blue star and a red star. Which of the following can you conclude about the two stars? A) The red star is moving away from us while the blue star is moving toward us. B) The red star is moving toward us while the blue star is moving away from us. C) The blue star is farther away than the red star. D) The blue star has a hotter surface temperature than the red star. E) The red star has a hotter surface temperature than the blue star.

Suppose the angular separation of two stars is smaller than the angular resolution of your eyes. How will the stars appear to your eyes? A) You will not be able to see these two stars at all. B) The two stars will look like a single point of light. C) The two stars will appear to be touching, looking rather like a small dumbbell. D) You will see two distinct stars. E) You will see only the larger of the two stars, not the smaller one.

What causes stars to twinkle? A) It is intrinsic to the stars—their brightness varies as they expand contract. B) variations in the absorption of the atmosphere C) variable absorption by interstellar gas along the line of sight to the star D) bending of light rays by turbulent layers in the atmosphere E) the inability of the human eye to see faint objects

Which of the following is not an advantage of the Hubble Space Telescope over ground-based telescopes? A) It is closer to the stars. B) Stars do not twinkle when observed from space. C) It can observe infrared and ultraviolet light, as well as visible light. D) It never has to close because of bad weather. E) Observers on the ground can use it at any time of day (i. e. , not only during their night).

Why did the solar nebula heat up as it collapsed? A) Nuclear fusion occurring in the core of the protosun produced energy that heated the nebula. B) As the cloud shrank, its gravitational potential energy was converted to kinetic energy and then into thermal energy. C) Radiation from other nearby stars that had formed earlier heated the nebula. D) The shock wave from a nearby supernova heated the gas. E) Collisions among planetesimals generated friction and heat.

Why did the solar nebula flatten into a disk? A) The interstellar cloud from which the solar nebula formed was originally somewhat flat. B) The force of gravity pulled the material downward into a flat disk. C) As the nebula cooled, the gas and dust settled onto a disk. D) It flattened as a natural consequence of collisions between particles in the nebula, changing random motions into more orderly ones.

Which of the following lists the ingredients of the solar nebula from highest to lowest percentage of mass of the nebula? A) light gases (H, He), hydrogen compounds (H 2 O, CH 4, NH 3), rocks, metals B) hydrogen compounds (H 2 O, CH 4, NH 3), light gases (H, He), rocks, metals C) light gases (H, He), hydrogen compounds (H 2 O, CH 4, NH 3), metals, rocks D) hydrogen compounds (H 2 O, CH 4, NH 3), light gases (H, He), metals, rocks E) hydrogen compounds (H 2 O, CH 4, NH 3), rocks, metals, light gases (H, He)

What was the frost line of the solar system? A) the distance from the Sun where temperatures were low enough for metals to condense, between the Sun and the presentday orbit of Mercury B) the distance from the Sun where temperatures were low enough for rocks to condense, between the present-day orbits of Mercury and Venus C) the distance from the Sun where temperatures were low enough for hydrogen compounds to condense into ices, between the present-day orbits of Mars and Jupiter D) the distance from the Sun where temperatures were low enough for asteroids to form, between the present-day orbits of Venus and Earth E) the distance from the Sun where temperatures were low enough for hydrogen and helium to condense, between the present-day orbits of Jupiter and Saturn

Why are the inner planets made of denser materials than the outer planets? A) The Sun's gravity pulled denser materials toward the inner part of the solar nebula, while lighter gases escaped more easily. B) Denser materials were heavier and sank to the center of the nebula. C) In the inner part of the nebula only metals and rocks were able to condense because of the high temperatures, whereas hydrogen compounds, although more abundant, were only able to condense in the cooler outer regions. D) When the solar nebula formed a disk, materials naturally segregated into bands, and in our particular solar system the denser materials settled nearer the Sun while lighter materials are found in the outer part. E) In the beginning, when the protoplanetary disk was spinning faster, centrifugal forces flung the lighter materials toward the outer parts of the solar nebula.

What is the most likely reason that there are no giant planets beyond Neptune? A) Any planets forming beyond Neptune would have drifted out of the solar system due to the weakness of the Sun's gravity at this distance. B) There was no material to create planetesimals beyond the orbit of Neptune. C) By the time planetesimals grew to a large enough mass to hold onto an atmosphere, the solar nebula had been blown away. D) Any planet forming beyond Neptune's orbit would have been scattered outside of the solar system by gravitational encounters. E) There may be, but they would be so faint that astronomers have not found them yet.

At first, the Sun's present-day rotation seems to contradict the prediction of the nebular theory because A) theory predicts that the axis of rotation should not be perpendicular to the orbital plane of the planets, but it is. B) the axis of rotation precesses slowly, which theory does not predict. C) the present-day rotation is in the opposite direction from that predicted by theory. D) theory predicts that the Sun should have been rotating fast when it formed, but the actual rotation is fairly slow. E) theory predicts that the Sun should not have been rotating when it formed, but the Sun actually rotates today.

According to our theory of solar system formation, why does the Sun rotate slowly today? A) The Sun once rotated much faster, but it transferred angular momentum to charged particles caught in its magnetic field and then blew the particles away with its strong solar wind. B) The Sun once rotated much faster, but it transferred angular momentum to planets and other objects during close encounters. C) The Sun once rotated much faster, but it lost angular momentum due to internal friction. D) The Sun once rotated much faster, but it lost angular momentum because everything slows down with time. E) The Sun was born rotating slowly because the solar nebula had very little angular momentum.

Based on our current theory of Earth's formation, the water we drink comes from A) ice that condensed in the solar nebula in the region where Earth formed. B) chemical reactions that occurred in Earth's crust after Earth formed. C) chemical reactions that occurred in Earth's core after Earth formed. D) material left behind during the giant impact that formed the Moon. E) comets that impacted Earth.

The age of the solar system can be established by radioactive dating of A) the oldest Earth rocks. B) the oldest rocks on the Moon. C) the oldest meteorites. D) the atmosphere of Mars. E) It hasn't been done yet, but the age of the solar system could be obtained from a sample of Io's surface.

Which layer of the Sun do we normally see? A) photosphere B) corona C) chromosphere D) convection zone E) radiation zone

The core of the Sun is A) at the same temperature and density as the surface. B) at the same temperature but denser than the surface. C) hotter and denser than the surface. D) constantly rising to the surface through convection. E) composed of iron.